Sample papers


1. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at an angle of 45o to the horizontal. The kinetic energy of the ball at the highest point of its flight will be:

(a) E/2                          (b) E                            (c) Zero                        (d) E/2

2. From a building two balls A and B are thrown such that A is thrown upwards and B downwards (both vertically). If vA and vB are their respective velocities on reaching the ground, then

(a) vA > vB (b) Their velocities depends on their masses

(c) vB > vA (c) vA = vB

3. If a body loses half of its velocity on penetrating 3 cm in         a wooden block, then how much will it penetrate more before coming to rest?

(a) 3 cm                       (b) 4 cm                       (c) 1 cm                       (d) 2 cm

4. If suddenly the gravitational force of attraction between earth and a satellite revolving around it becomes zero, then the satellite will:

(a) Become stationary in its orbit

(b) Move towards the earth

(c) Continue to move in its orbit with same velocity

(d) Move tangentially to the original orbit with the same velocity

5. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a:

(a) High resistance in series                               (b) Low resistance in series

(c) Low resistance in parallel                             (d) High resistance in parallel

6. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current I is flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a current 2i is flowing, then the ratio of the magnetic fields, BA and BB produced by them will be:

(a) ½                            (b) 2                             (c) 4                             (d) 1

7. If two mirrors are kept at 60o to each other, then the number of images formed by them is:

(a) 7                             (b) 8                             (c) 5                             (d) 6

8. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2. Then P2: P1 is

(a) 2                             (b) 3                             (c) 1                             (d) 4

9. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an electron from n = 2 is:

(a) 3.4eV                     (b) 6.8 eV                    (c) 10.2 eV                  (d) 0 eV

10. Tube A has both ends open while tube B has one end closed, otherwise they are identical. The ration of fundamental frequency of tubes A and By is:

(A) 2:1                         (b) 4:1                          (c) 1:2                          (d) 1:4

11. A tuning fork arrangement (pair) produces 4 beats/sec with one fork of frequency 288 cps. A little wax is placed on the unknown fork and it then produces 2 beats/sec. The frequency of the unknown fork is:

(a) 294 cps                   (b) 288 cps                  (c) 286 cps                   (d) 292 cps

12. A wave y =a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then the equation of the unknown wave is:

(a) y = a sin (wt – kx)                                       (b) y = -a sin (wt – kx)

(c) y = a sin (wt + kx)                           (d) y = -a sin (wt + kx)

13. On moving a charge of 20 coulombs by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the potential difference between the points is:

(a) 2 V                         (b) 0.5 V                      (c) 0.1 V                      (d) 8 V

14. If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter perpendicularly to a magnetic field, then:

(a) Curved path of electron is more curved than that of proton

(b) Path of proton is more curved

(c) Curved path of electron and proton will be same (ignoring the sense of revolution)

(d) They will move undeflected

15. Energy required to move a body of mass m from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is:

(a) GMm/12R2 (b) GMm/3R2 (c) GMm/6R                (d) GMm/8R

16. If a spring has time period T, and is cut into n equal parts, then the time period of each part will be:

(a) nT                           (b) T                            (c) Tn                           (d) T/n

17. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are l1 = 4000 Ao and l2 = 5000 Ao, then ratio of their respective resolving posers (corresponding to l1 and l2) is:

(A) 4:5                         (b) 5:4                          (c) 16:25                      (d) 9:1

18. Two identical particles move towards each other with velocity 2v and v respectively. The velocity of centre of mass is

(a) v/2                          (b) zero                        (c) v                             (d) v/3

19. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will:

(a) Remain same           (b) none of these           (c) Expand                   (d) Compress

20. Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1o C is:

(a) Specific heat                                                (b) Temperature gradient

(c) Water equivalent                                         (d) Thermal capacity

21. At absolute zero, Si acts as:

(a) Insulator                  (b) None of these         (c) Non-metal               (d) Metal

22. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by:

(a) Reflection                (b) Diffraction   (c) Polarization             (d) Interference

23. Which of the following is used in optical fibres?

(a) Diffraction               `                       (b) Refraction

(c) Total internal reflection                                 (d) Scattering

24. The escape velocity of a body depends upon magnetic waves?

(a) m0 (b) m1 (c) m2 (d) m3

25. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?

(a) b–rays                    (b) X–rays                    (c) g–rays                     (d) Cosmic–rays

26. Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal:

(a) Force and stress                                          (b) Force and work

(c) Torque and work                                        (d) Stress and energy

27. If qi is the inversion temperature, qn is the neutral temperature; qc is the temperature of the cold junction then:

(a) qi+qc/2=qn (b) qc-qi=2qn (c) qi+qc=qn (d) qi-qc =2qn

28. Infrared radiations are detected by:

(a) Nanometer (b) Photometer (c) Spectrometer          (d) Pyrometer

29. If N0 is the original mass of the substance of half-life period t1/2=5 years, then the amount of substance left after 15 years is:

(a) N0/2                        (b) N0/4                       (c) N0/8                        (d) N0/16

30. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor:

(a) Increases, decreases respectively                 (b) Decreases, increases respectively

(c) Increases for both                                        (d) Decreases for both

31. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to V volt source, then the energy stored is equal to:

(a) CV2 (b) 1/2 nCV2 (c) CV                         (d) ½nCV2

32. Which of the following is more close to a black body?

(a) Black holes             (b) Red roses               (c) Black board paint    (d) Green leaves

33. Which statement is incorrect?

(a) Carnot cycle is a reversible one

(b) Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles

(c) All reversible cycles have same efficiency

(d) Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one

34. Length of a string tied to two rigid supports is 40 cm. Maximum length (wavelength in cm) of a stationary wave produced on it, is:

(a) 40                           (b) 120                         (c) 20                           (d) 80

35. The power factor of an A.C. circuit having resistance R and inductance L (connected in cm) and an angular velocity w is:

(a) R/wL                      (b) wL/R                      (c) R/ (R2-w2L2)1/2      (d) R/ (R2+w2L2)1/2

36. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to:

(a) Increase span of observation                        (b) Have low dispersion

(c) Reduce spherical aberration                         (d) Have high resolution

37. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from the earth’s surface (radius R) to infinity is:

(a) mgR/2                     (b) mgR/4                     (c) 2mgR          `           (d) mgR

38. Cooking gas containers are kept in a lorry moving with uniform speed. The temperature of the gas molecules inside will:

(a) Remain same

(b) Decrease for some, while increase for others


(d) Decrease

39. When temperature increases, the frequency of a tuning fork:

(A) remains same

(b) Increases or decreases depending on the material

(c) Increases

(d) Decreases

40. If mass energy equivalence is taken into account, when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of water should:

(a) Decrease                                                     (b) First increase then decrease

(c) Increase                                                      (d) Remain unchanged

41. The energy band gap is maximum in:

(a) Insulators                                                    (b) Semiconductors

(c) Metals                                                         (d) Superconductors

42. The part of a transistor which is most heavily doped to produce large number of majority carriers is:

(a) Collector                                                     (b) Can be any of the above three

(c) Emitter                                                        (d) Base

43. in a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position:

(a) Kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum

(b) Both kinetic and potential energies are minimum

(c) Kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is maximum

(d) Both kinetic and potential energies are maximum

44. Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M is   . Then two small spheres of mass m are attached gently to two diametrically opposite points on the edge of the disc. What is the final angular velocity of the disc?

(a) (M+m/M)w1 (b) (M/M+2m)w1 (c) (M+m/m)w1 (d) (M/M+4m)w1

45. The minimum velocity (in ms-1) with which a car driver must traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is:

(a) 15                           (b) 25                           (c) 60                           (d) 30

46. A cylinder of height 20 m is completely filled with water. The velocity of efflux of water (in ms-1) through a small hole on the side wall of the cylinder near its bottom is:

(a) 25.5                        (b) 5                             (c) 60                           (d) 30

47. A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from 5 cm to 15 cm is:

(a) 32 J                                    (b) 24 J                        (c) 16 J                                    (d) 8 J

48. A child swinging on a swing in sitting position, stands up, then the time period of the swing will:

(a) Remain same

(b) Increase if the child is long and decrease if the child is short

(c) Increase

(d) Decrease

49. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a ball inside the lift. The acceleration of the ball as observed by the man in the lift and a man standing stationary on the ground are respectively:

(a) g – a, g                    (b) a, g                         (c) g, g                         (d) g – a, g – a

50. The mass of a product liberated on anode in an electrochemical cell depends on:

(a) l/t                            (b) l2t                            (c) (lt)1/2 (d) lt

(Where t is the time period for which the current is passed)

51. At what temperature is the rms velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen molecule at 47oC?

(a) 3 K                         (b) 20 K                       (c) 80 K                       (d) -73

52. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is independent of it’s:

(a) Charge                                                        (b) Magnetic induction

(c) Speed                                                         (d) Mass

53. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are released from top of an inclined plane (frictionless) so that they slide down the plane. Then maximum acceleration down the plane is for (no rolling):

(a) Ring                        (b) All same                  (c) Solid sphere            (d) Hollow sphere

54. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in primary is 4 A, then that in the secondary is:

(a) 6 A                         (b) 10 A                       (c) 4 A                         (d) 2 A

55. Even Carnot engine cannot give 100% efficiency because we cannot:

(a) Reach absolute zero temperature                 (b) Eliminate friction

(c) Prevent radiation                                         (d) Find ideal sources

56. Moment of inertia of a circular wire of mass M and radius R about its diameter is:

(a) MR2/2                     (b) MR2 (c) 2MR2 (d) MR2/4

57. When forces ‘F1, F2, F3 are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are mutually perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is son removed then the acceleration of the particle is:

(a) (F2 – F3)/m              (b) F2/m                       (c) F1/m                        (d) F2F3/mF1

58. Two forces are such that the sum of their magnitudes is 18 N and their resultant is perpendicular to the smaller force. Then the magnitudes of the force are:

(a) 10 N, 8 N               (b) 16 N, 2 N               (c) 12 N, 6 N               (d) 13 N, 5 N

59. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances at which the two cars are stopped from that instant is:

(A) 1:8                         (b) 1:16                        (c) 1:1                          (d) 1:4

60. 1 mole of a gas with g = 7/5 is mixed with 1 mole of a gas with g = 5/3, then the value of  g for the resulting mixture is:

(A) 7/5                         (b) 12/7                        (c) 2/5                          (d) 24/16

61. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium then the value of q is:

(A) Q/4                                    (b) –Q/4           (c) Q/2                         (d) –Q/2

62. Capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor having radius 1 m, is:

(A) 9*10-9 (b) 10-3 (c) 1.1*10-10 (d) 10-6

63. A light string passing over a smooth light pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 (vertically). If the acceleration of the system is g/8, then the ratio of the masses is:

(A) 4:3                         (b) 5:3                          (c) 8:1                          (d) 9:7

64. Two spheres of the same material have radii 1 m and 4 m and temperatures 4000 K and 2000 K respectively. The ratio of the energy radiated per second by the first sphere to that by the second is:

(A) 4:1                                     (b) 1:9              (c) 1:1                          (d) 16:1

65. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit:

(a) He+2                      (b) Neutrons                 (c) Electrons                 (d) Protons

The emission at the instant can be

(i) A, b, c                     (ii) a, b, c, d                  (iii) d                            (iv) b, c

66. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the wavelengths is nearest to:

(A) 2:1                         (b) 1:4                          (c) 1:2                          (d) 4:1

67. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds exhibits:

(a) Both wave and particle nature of electron

(b) None of these

(c) Wave nature of electron

(d) Particle nature of electron

68. Which of the following is a redox reaction?

(a) Ca (OH) 2 + 2NH4Cl ® CaCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O

(b) 2K [Ag (CN)2] + Zn ® 2Ag + K2 [Zn(CN)4]

(c) NaCl +KNO3 ® NaNO3 + KCL

(d) CaC2O4 + 2HCl ® CaCl2 + H2C2O4

69. For an ideal gas, number of mol per litre in terms of its pressure P, temperature T and gas constant R is:

(a) P/RT                       (b) RT/P                       (c) PT/R                       (d) PRT

70. Number of P __ O bonds in P4O10 is:

(a) 15                           (b) 6                             (c) 17                           (d) 16

71. KO2 is used in space and submarines because it:

(a) Absorbs CO2

(b) Produces ozone

(c) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 concentration

(d) Absorbs moisure

72. Which of the following ions has the maximum magnetic moment?

(A) Ti2+ (b) Cr2+ (c) Mn2+ (d) Fe2+

73. Acetylene does not react with:

(a) HCl                                                 (b) NaOH

(c) Na                                                              (d) ammonical AgNO3

74. Acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid to form:

(a) CH3COCl               (b) ClCH2CHO            (c) Cl2CHCHO            (d) ClCH2COOH

75. On heating benzyl amine with chloroform and ethanolic KOH, product obtained is:

(a) Benzonitrile             (b) Benzyl isocyanide    (c) Benzyl alcohol         (d) Benzaldehyde

76. Which of the following reaction is possible at anode?

(a) 2Cr3+2 + 7H2O ® Cr2O2-7 + 14H+ 6e

(b) Fe2+ ® Fe3+ + e

(c) F2 + 2e ® 2F

(d) 2H+ + ½ O2 + 2e ® H2O

77. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature?

(a) Mol fraction            (b) Weight fraction        (c) Molarity                  (d) Molality

78.  Cyanide process is used for the extraction of:

(a) Boron                     (b) Zinc                        (c) Barium                    (d) Silver

79. Following reaction

(CH3)3CBr + H2O ® (CH3)3COH + HBr

Is an example of?

(a) Nucleophilic substitution                              (b) Electophilic substitution

(c) Elimination reaction                          (d) Free radical substitution

80. A metal M forms water soluble MSO4 and inert MO. MO in aqueous solution forms insoluble M (OH) 2 soluble in NaOH. Metal M is:

(a) Ca                          (b) Si                            (c) Be                           (d) Mg

81. Half life of a substance A following first order kinetics is 5 days. Starting with 100 g of A, amount left after 15 days is:

(a) 12.5 g                     (b) 6.25 g                     (c) 25 g                        (d) 50 g

82. the most stable ion is:

(a) [Fe (OH) 5]3- (b) [FeCl6]3- (c) [Fe (CN) 6]3- (d) [Fe (H2O) 6]3+

83. A substance forms zwitter ion. It can have functional groups:

(a) – NH2, -SO3H        (b) –NH2, -COOH       (c) Both                        (d) None of these

84. If Fe3+ and Cr3+ both are present in group III of qualitative analysis, then distinction can be made by:

(a) Precipitate of Cr (OH) 3 and Fe (OH) 3 as obtained in (b) are treated with conc. HCl when only Fe (OH) 3 dissolves

(b) Addition of NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl when only Fe (OH) 3 is precipitated

(c) Addition of NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl when Cr (OH) 3 both are precipitated and on adding Br2 water and NaOH, Cr (OH) 3 dissolves

(d) (B) and (c) the correct.

85. In an organic compound of molar mass 108 g mol-1 C, H and N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular formula can be:

(a) C5H6N3 (b) C4H18N3 (c) C6H8N2 (d) C7H10N

86. Solubility of Ca (OH) 2 is S mol litre-1. The solubility product (Ksp) under the same condition is:

(a) 4S3 (b) 3S4 (c) S3 (d) 4S2

87. Heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mol of a substance by 1o is called:

(a) Water equivalent                                         (b) Specific gravity

(c) Specific heat                                                (d) Molar heat capacity

88. b–particle is emitted in a radioactive reaction when:

(a) A neutron changes to neutron                       (b) An electron changes to neutron

(c) A proton changes to neutron                        (d) a neutron changes to proton

89. In a mixture of A and B, components show negative deviation when:

(a) DVmix>0, DSmix>0

(b) DVmix=0, DSmix>0

(c) A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B interaction

(d) A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-B interaction

90. Refining of impure copper with zinc impurity is to be done by electrolysis using electrons as:

Cathode           Anode

(a) Pure copper            pure zinc

(b) Pure zinc                 pure copper

(c) Pure copper            impure copper

(d) Pure zinc                 impure zinc

91. Aluminium is extracted by the electrolysis of:

(a) Molten cryolite

(b) Alumina mixed with molten cryolite


(d) Bauxite

92. For an aqueous solution, freezing point is – 0.186oC. Elevation of the boiling point of the same solution is (Kf = 1.86o mol-1 kg and Kb = 0.512o mol-1 kg):

(a) 1.86o (b) 5.12o (c) 0.186o (d) 0.0512o

93. Underlined carbon is sp3 hybridized in:

(a) CH3_CONH2 (b) CH3CH2_CN         (c) CH3_CH==CH2 (d) CH3_CH2NH2

94. Bond angle of 109o28’is found in:

(a) NH3 (b) CÅH5 (c) NÅH4 (d) H2O

95. For a reaction A+2B   C, rate is given by + d[C]/dt = k [A] [B], hence the order of the reaction is:

(a) 1                             (b) 0                             (c) 3                             (d) 2

96. CH3Mgl is an organometallic compound due to:

(a) C—Mg bond          (b) C—H bond            (c) Mg—I bond            (d) C—I bond

97. One of the following species acts as both Bronsted acid and base:

(a) HPO2-4 (b) H2PO2 (c) HPO2-3 (d) all of the above

98. Hybridization of the underline atom changes in:

(a) N__H3 changes to NH+4 (b) A__lH3 changes to AlH4

(c) H2__O changes to NH+4 (d) in all cases

99. Racemic mixture is formed by mixing two:

(a) Meso compounds                                        (b) Enantiomers with chiral carbon

(c) Isomeric compounds                                   (d) chiral compounds

100. The number of lone pairs on Xe in XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 respectively are:

(a) 1, 2, 3                     (b) 6, 4, 2                     (c) 3, 2, 1                     (d) 2, 4, 6

101. An aqueous solution of lM NaCl and lM HCl is:

(a) A buffer with pH < 7                                   (b) A buffer with pH > 7

(c) Not a buffer but pH < 7                               (d) Not a buffer but pH > 7

102. Consider following two reactions

A ® Product    – d[A]/dt = k1 [A]0

B ® Product    – d [B]/dt = K2 [B]

k1 and k2 are expressed in erms of molarity (moL-1) and time (sec-1) as:

(a) sec-1, M-1 sec-1 (b) M sec-1, L-1 sec-1

(c) sec-1, Msec-1 L-1 (d) M sec-1, M sec-1

103. RNA contains:

(a) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil                       (b) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine

(c) Ribose sugar and thymine                (d) Ribose sugar and uracil

104. For a cell given below:

Ag |­­__ Ag+ | | Cu2+ |+ Cu

Ag+ + e ® Ag Eo = x

Cu2+ + 2e ® Cu, Eo = y

Eo cell is:

(a) y-x                          (b) y-2x                        (c) x+2y                       (d) 2x+2y

105. Based on kinetic theory of gases following laws can be proved:

(a) Avogadro’s law       (b) All of these  (c) Boyle’s law (d) Charle’s law

106. MnO4 is a good oxidizing agent in different medium changing to

MnO4 ® Mn2+

® MnO2-4

® MnO2

® Mn2O3

Changes in oxidation number respectively are:

(a) 5, 1, 3, 4                 (b) 2, 6, 4, 3                 (c) 1, 2, 4, 5                 (d) 5, 4, 3, 2

107. for reaction: H2 + I2 ® 2HI, the differential rate law is:

(a) – d [H2]/dt = – [I2]/DT = d [HI]/dt               (b) – d [H2]/2dt = -d [I2]/2dt = d [HI]/dt

(c) – d[H2]/dt = -d[I2]/dt = 2d[HI]/dt                (d) -2d[H2]/dt = – 2d[I2]/dt = d[HI]/dt

108. Number of atoms in 560 g of Fe (atomic mass 56 mol-1) is:

(A) is half that of 20 g H                                   (b) Is twice that of 70 g N

(c) Both are correct                                          (d) none is correct

109. Geometrical isomerism is not shown by:

(a) 1, 3-dichloro-2-pentene                              (b) 1, 4-dichloro-2-pentene

(c) 1, 1-dichloro-1-pentene                              (d) 1, 2-dichloro-1-pentene

110. Number of atoms in the unit cell of Na (BCC type crystal) and Mg (FCC type crystal) are respectively:

(a) 2, 4                         (b) 1, 1             (c) 4, 4                         (d) 4, 2

111. Which of the following compounds has incorrect IUPAC nomenclature?






|     |

H3C   OH







3-methyl butanal

112. End product of the following reaction is:


CH3CH2COOH           ®

Red P

Alcoholic KOH


(a) CH2==CHCOOH                                       (b) CH2CHCOOH

|     |


(c) CH3CHCOOH                                           (d) CH2CH2COOH

|                                                               |

OH                                                          OH

113. for the following reaction in gaseous phase CO+1/2O2 ® CO2

Kc/Kp is:

(a) (RT)                        (b) (RT)-1 (c) (RT) 1/2 (d) (RT)-1/2

114. Energy of H-atom in the ground state is -13.6 eV, hence energy in the second excited state is:

(a) -1.51 eV                 (b) -4.53 eV                 (c) -6.8 eV                   (d) -3.4 eV

115. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of the following atomic orbitals:

(a) d, s, px, py (b) s, px, py, pz, d, d      (c) s, px, py, pz (d) s, px, py, pz, d

116. Type of isomerism shown by

[Cr (NH3)5NO2]Cl2 is:

(a) Geometrical             (b) Linkage                   (c) Optical                    (d) Ionisation

117. One of the following equilibria is not affected by change in volume of the flask:

(a) N2 (g) + O2 (g) == 2NO (g)                                     (b) SO2Cl2 (g) == SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)

(c) PCl5 (g) == PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)                      (d) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) == 2MJ3 (g)

118. Uncertainty in position of a particle of 25g in space is 10-5m. Hence uncertainty in velocity (ms-1) is (Planck’s constant h = 6.6*10-34 Js):

(A) 0.5*10-34 (b) 5.0*10-24 (c) 2.1*10-28 (d) 2.1*10-34

119. Consider the following reactions at 1100oC

(I) 2C + O2 ® 2CO,

DGo = – 460kJ mol-1

(II) 2Zn + O2 ® 2ZnO,

DGo = – 360 kJ mol-1

Based on these, select correct alternate:

(a) Zinc oxide can be reduced by carbon           (b) Zinc can be oxidized by CO

(c) Both are correct                                          (d) none is correct

120. A reaction is non-spontaneous at the freezing point of water but is spontaneous at the boiling point of water then:

DH                   DS

(a) +ve                         +ve

(b) –Ve                        -ve

(c) –ve                         +ve

(d) +ve                         -ve

121. Monomers are converted to polymer by:

(a) Protonation of monomers

(b) Hydrolysis of monomers

(c) Condensation reaction between monomers

(d) None is correct

122. Increasing order of bond strength of

O2, O2 O2-2 and O+2 is:

(a) O2<O2-2<O+2<O2 (b) O2-2<O2<O2<O+2

(c) O+2<O2<O2<O2-2 (d) O2<O+2<O2<O2-2

123. Most common oxidation states of Ce (Cerium) are:

(a) +2, +4                    (b) +3, +5                    (c) +3, +4                    (d) +2, +3

124. Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increasing order as:

(a) La3+= Ce3+<Pm3+<Yb3+ (b) Yb3+<Pm3+<La3+<Ce3+

(c) La3+<Ce3+<Pm3+<Yb3+ (d) Yb3+<Pm3+<Ce3+>La3+

124. pH of 0.005 M calcium acetate (pKa of CH3COOH = 4.74) is:

(a) 9.26                        (b) 8.37                        (c) 7.04                        (d) 9.37

125. H2 gas is absorbed on the metal surface like tungsten. This follows……order reaction.

(a) Zero                        (b) First                        (c) Third                       (d) Second

126. Rate constant k of the first order reaction when initial concentration Co and concentration Ct at time t is given by equation

Kt = log C0 – log Ct

Graph is a straight line if we plot:

(a) t-1 vs log Ct (b) log C0 vs log Ct (c) t vs log C0 (d) t vs log Ct

127. Alum is widely used to purify water since:

(a) It exchanges Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water

(b) Its sulphate ion is water purifier

(c) It forms complex with clay particles

(d) It coagulates the mud particles

128. on vigorous oxidation by permanganate solution

(CH3)2 C==CHCH2CHO gives:

(a) (CH3)2CO and OHCCH2COOH                (b) (CH3)2CO and CH2 (COOH) 2

(c) (CH3)2CO and OHCCH2CHO                   (d) (CH3)2 C__CHCH2CHO

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129. in the following benzyl/allyl system R


Decreasing order of inductive effect is:

(a) (CH3)2CH-> CH3CH2-> (CH3)3C (b) (CH3)2C-> CHCH-> (CH3)3CH

(c) (CH3)3C-> (CH3)2CH-> CH3CH2- (d) CH3CH2-> (CH3)2CH-> (CH3)3C

130. PCl3 and PCl5 both exist; NCl3 exists but NCl5 does not exist. It is due to:

(a) Availability of vacant d-orbital in P but not in N

(b) Statement is itself incorrect

(c) Lower electronegativity of P than N

(d) Lower tendency of N to form covalent bond

131. Following in types of compounds (as I, II)




Are studied in terms of isomerism in:

(a) Conformers                                                 (b) Stereoisomerism

(c) Chain isomerism                                          (d) Position isomerism

132. Conductivity (Seiment’s S) is directly proportional to area of the vessel and the concentration of the solution in it and is inversely proportional to the length of the vessel, then constant of proportionality is expressed is:

(a) S m2 mol-1 (b) S2 m2 mol                (c) S m mol-1 (d) S2m2 mol-2

133. A heat engine absorbs heat q1 from a source at temperature T1 and heat q2 from a source at temperature T2. Work done is found to be J (q1 + q2). This is in accordance with:

(a) Joules equivalent law                                   (b) None of the above

(c) First law of thermodynamics                        (d) Second law of thermodynamics

134. Select correct statement:

(a) A bond is formed when attractive forces overcome repulsive forces

(b) HF is less polar than HBr

(c) When a covalent bond is formed, transfer of electrons takes place

(d) Pure H2O does not contain any ion

135. The metallic sodium dissolves in liquid ammonia to form a deep blue coloured solution. The deep blue colour is due to formation of:

(a) (Na++ Na)                                     (b NaNH2 + H2

(c) Solvated electron, e (NH3)x (d) Solvated atomic sodium, Na (NH3) y

136. Car A and car B start moving simultaneously in the same direction with a constant acceleration a = 4 m/s2 while car B moves with a constant velocity v = 1 m/s at time t = 0. Car A is 10 m behind car B. The time taken when car A overtakes car B, is:

(A) 5 sec                      (b) 1.5 sec                    (c) 2.5 sec                    (d) 3.5 sec

137. A body is projected at such an angle that the horizontal range is three times the greatest height. The angle of projection is (tan 53o 8’ = 1.33):

(a) 33o7’                      (b) 25o8’                     (c) 53o8’                      (d) 42o8’

138. Given that g is acceleration due to gravity and R is the radius of earth, then (g/R) ½ possesses the dimensions of:

(a) Angular speed         (b) Orbital speed          (c) Time period             (d) Escape velocity

139. A car is moving with a speed of 10 m/s on a concave road of radius 100 m. If the mass of the car is 700 kg, then the reaction on the car tyres when, it is at the lowest position, will be:

(a) 5560 N                   (b) 4560 N                   (c) 7560 N                   (d) 6560 N

140. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is then rotated in a horizontal plane about one of its ends with a uniform angular velocity w. The force exerted by the liquid at the other end is:

(a) MLw2 (b) MLw2/2                  (c) MLw2/4                  (d) ML2w2/2

141. A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc. Angular velocity (w) of disc varies with number of rotations (n) made by the disc as:

(a) w µ n1/3                (b) w µ n2                   (c) w µ n2/3                (d) w µ n3/2

142. A man throws the bricks to a height of 12 m where they reach with a speed of 12 m/s. If he throws the bricks such that they just reach that height, what percentage of energy will be saved?

(a) 38%                        (b) 50%                       (c) 29%                        (d) 46%

143. A ball of mass m and density p is immersed in a liquid of density 3p at a depth h and released. To what height will the ball jump up above the surface of liquid? (Neglect the resistance of water and air)

(a) 2h                           (b) 3h                           (c) h                             (d) h/2

144. The ration of the energy required to raise a satellite upto a height h above the earth to the K.E. of satellite into the earth’s orbit, will be (R = radius of earth):

(a) 2h: R                       (b) R: h             (c) h: R             (d) R: 2h

145. If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above the earth’s surface is T and the density of earth is p, then pT2:

(A) Is proportional to radius of earth R

(B) is proportional to square of radius of earth R

(c) Is a universal constant whose value is 3p/G?

(d) Is a universal constant whose value is 3p/2G?

(Here G = universal gravitational constant)

146. The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves around a circle of radius r with angular speed w. The acceleration due to gravity on planet’s surface will be:

(a) r2w2/R                     (b) r3w/R                      (c) r3w2/R2 (d) r2w3/R

147. Two soap bubbles one larger and other smaller are formed at the ends of a horizontal tube, communication between the two bubbles being prevented by a tap. If the tap is opened:

(a) The larger bubble shrinks and the smaller one expands

(b) The smaller bubble shrinks and the larger one expands

(c) The bubble either shrinks nor expands

(d) Both bubbles expand

148. An iron bar of length l and having a cross-sectional area A is heated from 0oC to 100oC. If this bar is so held that it is not permitted to extend or bend, the force that is developed is:

(a) Inversely proportional to the length of bar

(b) Independent of the length of the bar

(c) Inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the bar

(d) Directly proportional to the length of bar

149. Two spheres of volume 250 cc each but of relative densities 0.8 and 1.2 are connected by a string and the combination is immersed in liquid. The tension in the string is (g = 10 m/s2):

(a) 1.0 N                      (b) 2.0 N                      (c) 5.0 N                      (d) 0.5 N

150. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic oscillation along the x-axis with frequency 25/ Hz. At the position x = 0.04 m, the object has kinetic energy 0.5 J and the potential energy 0.4 J. The amplitude of oscillation is (potential energy is zero at mean position):

(a) 4 cm                       (b) 6 cm                       (c) 2 cm                       (d) 8 cm

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SSC Combined Graduate Level Exam Sample Paper

Staff Selection Commission

Combined Graduate Level Exam

Subject – General English

Directions (1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word.

A two party (1) is must for a democratic country like (2) to achieve national objectives (3) as removal (4) unemployment,

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SSC CGL Exam Model Practice Paper


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Combined Graduate level Examination SSC 2011

Directions (1-10): A passage is given below in which blanks have been numbered. Four alternative choices are given below against each number. In the context of the whole passage, select the best word in each case to fit each of the blanks to complete the passage correctly and meaningfully.

During the World War I penicillin was (1) on six patients.

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IBPS Clerk Exam Model Question Paper 2






1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?

(a) US                                                         (b) Britain

(c) France                                                (d) Denmark

(e) None of these

2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.

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IBPS PO / Management Trainee Exam Model Question Paper 2


Bank Probationary Officer ( Bank PO)


General Knowledge

1. Name the Karnataka minister who resigned in the wake of the Lokayukta police filing a first information report against him on irregularities related to allotment of land through the Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board (KIADB).

(a) Katta Subramanya Naidu              (b) N Santosh Hegde

(c) Jagmohan Reddy                           (d) Roshan Baig

(e) None of these


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IBPS PO / Management Trainee Exam Model Question Paper 1




General Knowledge

1. Which of the following is rated the poorest region of the world?

(a) The Middle East                           (b) Asia

(c) Sub-Saharan Africa                      (d) Latin America

(e) None of these

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(a) Sinking Fund                                 (b) Third World

(c) Open Door Policy                                     (d) Devaluation

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