SOLVED EXAM PAPER
Subject – Physics and Chemistry
AIEEE Exam – 2003
1. Which of the following statements is false for a particle moving in a circle with a constant angular speed?
(a) The velocity vector is tangent to the circle
(b) The acceleration vector is tangent to the circle
(c) The acceleration vector points to the centre of the circle
(d) The velocity and acceleration vectors are perpendicular to each other
2. An automobile traveling with a speed of 60 km/h, can brake to stop within a distance of 20 km/h. If the car is going twice as fast. I.e. 120 km/h, the stopping distance will be:
(a) 20 m (b) 40 m (c) 60 m (d) 80 m
3. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms-1. The man holding it, can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
(a) One (b) Four (c) Two (d) Three
4. Which one of the following represents the correct dimensions of the coefficient of viscosity?
(a) [ML-1T-2] (b) [MLT-1] (c) [ML-1T-1] (d) [ML-2T-2]
5. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic energy for any displacement x is proportional to:
(a) x2 (b) ex (c) x (d) logex
6. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the ground. What is the position of the ball in T/3 seconds?
(a) h/9 metre from the ground (b) 7h/9 metre from the ground
(c) 8h/9 metre from the ground (d) 17h/18 metre from the ground
7. A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If T1 and T2 be the time of flights in the two cases, then the product of the two times of flights is directly proportional to:
(s) 1//R2 (b) 1/R (c) R (d) R2
8. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed uo at an angle of projection q. From the same point and at the same instant, a person starts running with a constant speed uo/2 to catch the ball. Will the person be able to catch the ball? If yes, what should be the angle of projection?
(a) Yes, 600 (b) Yes, 300 (c) No (d) Yes, 450
9. One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their moment of inertia about their diameters are respectively lA and lB such that:
(a) lA = lB (b) lA>lB (c) lA<lB (d) lA/lB = dA/dB
10. A satellite of mass m revolves around the earth of radius R at a height x from its surface. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, the orbital speed of the satellite is:
(a) gx (b) gR/R-x (c) gR2/R+x (d) (gR2/R+x)1/2
11. The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit is independent of:
(a) The mass of the satellite (b) radius of its orbit
(c) Both the mass and radius of the orbit (d) neither the mass of the satellite nor the
12. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the surface of the earth to a height equal to the radius R of the earth, is:
(a) 2mgR (b) ½ mgR (c) ¼ mgR (d) mgR
13. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from the edge of the table. The total mass of the chain is 4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the entire chain on the table?
(a) 7.2 J (b) 3.6 J (c) 120 J (d) 1200 J
14. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg) is (take g = 10 m/s2):
(a) 2.0 (b) 4.0 (c) 1.6 (d) 2.5
15. A body of mass m accelerates uniformly from rest to v1 in time t1. The instantaneous power delivered to the body as a function of time t is:
(a) mv1t/t1 (b) mv21t/t21 (c) mv1t2/t1 (d) mv21t/t1
16. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane, it follows that:
(a) Its velocity is constant (b) Its acceleration is constant
(c) Its kinetic energy is constant (d) It moves in a straight line
17. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of the sphere is increased keeping mass same which one of the following will not be affected?
(A) Moment of inertia (b) Angular momentum
(c) Angular velocity (d) Rotational kinetic energy
18. A particle at the end of a spring executes simple harmonic motion with a period t1, while the corresponding period for another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation with the two springs in series in series is T, then:
(a) T = t1+t2 (b) T2 = t21+t22 (c) T-1 = t1-1+t2-1 (d) T-2 = t1-2+t2-2
19. The total energy of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion is:
(a) µ x (b) µ x2 (c) independent of x (d) µ x1/2
Where x is the displacement from the mean position.
20. The displacement y of a particle in a medium can be expressed as:
Y = 10-6 sin (100t+20x+p/4) m, where t is in second and x in metre. The speed of the wave is :
(a) 2000 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 20 m/s (d) 5p m/s
21. A particle of mass m is attached to a spring (of spring constant k) and has a natural angular frequency w0. An external force F (t) proportional to cos wt (w¹w0) is displacement of the oscillator will be proportional to:
(a) m/w20-w2 (b) 1/m(w02-w2) (c) 1/m(w02+w2) (d) m/w02+w2
22. In forced oscillation of a particle, the amplitude is maximum for a frequency w1 of the force, while the energy is maximum for w2 of the force, then:
(a) w1 = w2 (b) w1 > w2
(c) w1 < w2 when damping is small and w1> w2 (d) w1 < w2
23. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to:
(a) R(n+1/2) (b) R(n-1/2) (c) Rn (d) R(n-2/2)
24. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length l by applying a force F. The work done in stretching is:
(a) F/2l (b) Fl (c) 2Fl (d) Fl/2
25. Spherical balls of radius R are falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity h with a velocity v. The retarding viscous force acting on the spherical ball is:
(a) Directly proportional to R but inversely proportional to v
(b) Directly proportional to both radius R and velocity
(c) Inversely proportional to both radius R and velocity v
(d) Inversely proportional to R but directly proportional to velocity v
26. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube:
(a) Air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
(b) Air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged
(c) Air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger
(d) There is no flow of air
27. The bob of a simple pendulum executes simple harmonic motion in water with a period t, while the period of oscillation of the bob is t0 in air. Neglecting frictional force of water and given that the density of the bob is (4/3) *1000 kg/m3. What relationship between t and t0 is true?
(a) t =t0 (b) t = t0/2 (c) t = 2t0 (d) t = 4t0
28. One mole of ideal monatomic gas (v = 5/3) is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas (g = 7/5). What is g for the mixture? g denotes the ratio of the specific heat at constant pressure, to that at constant volume.
(A) 3/2 (b) 23/15 (c) 35/23 (d) 4/3
29. If the temperature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously. Will be:
(a) 4 (b) 16 (c) 32 (d) 64
30. Which of the following statements is correct for any thermodynamic system?
(a) The internal energy changes in all processes
(b) Internal energy and entropy are state functions
(c) The change in entropy can never be zero
(d) The work done in an adiabatic process is always zero
31. A Plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved surface. Now this lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this lens, an object be placed in order to have a real image of the size of the object?
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 80 cm
32. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n), is :
(a) Sin -1 (n) (b) sin -1 (1/n) (c) tan -1 (1/n) (d) tan -1 (n)
33. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with are at temperatures (T1, T2), volume (V1, V2) and pressure (P1, P2) respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the vessel at equilibrium will be:
(a) T1+T2 (b) (T1+T2)/2
(c) T1T2 (P1V1+P2V2)/P1V1T2+P2V2T1 (d) T1T2 (P1V1+P2V1)/P1V1T1+P2V2T2
34. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is:
(a) E/c (b) 2E/c (c) Ec (d) E/c2
35. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is:
(a) 1A (b) 2A (c) 4A (d) 6A
36. The resistance of the series combination of two resistances is S. When they are joined in parallel, the total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum possible value of n is:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
37. An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and 2/3, then the ratio of the currents passing through the wire will be:
(A) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) 8/9 (d) 2
38. In a metre bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when resistance X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X<Y, then where will be the new position of the null point from the same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4X against Y?
(A) 50 cm (b) 80 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 70 cm
39. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment is:
(a) Infinite (b) Five (c) Three (d) Zero
40. An electromagnetic wave of frequency V = 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with permittivity e = 4.0. Then:
(a) Wavelength is doubled and the frequency remains unchanged
(b) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
(c) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
(d) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
41. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is:
(a) F/4 (b) 3F/4 (c) F/8 (d) 3F/8
42. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is:
(A) –Q/4(1+2 Ö2 (b) Q/4(1+2 Ö2 (c) –Q/2(1+2 Ö2 (d) Q/f2 (1+2 Ö2
43. The thermistors are usually made of:
(a) Metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
(b) Metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(c) Metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(d) Semi conducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resisstivity
44. Time taken by an 836 W heater to heat one litre of water from 100 C to 400 C is:
(a) 50 s (b) 100 s (c) 150 s (d) 200 s
45. The thermo-emf of a thermocouple varies with the temperature q of the hot junction as E = a q + b q2 in volts where the ratio a/b is 7000 C. If the cold junction is kept at 00 C, then the neutral temperature is :
(A) 7000 C (b) 3500 C
(c) 14000 C (d) no neutral temperature is possible for this
46. The electrochemical equivalent of metal is 3.3 * 10-7 kg per coulomb. The mass of the metal liberated at the cathode when a 3 A current is passed for 2 seconds, will be:
(a) 19.8*10-7 kg (b) 9.9*10-7 kg (c) 6.6*10-7 kg (d) 1.1*10-7 kg
47. A current I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point inside the tube is :
(a) Infinite (b Zero (c) m0/4p .2i/r tesla (d) 2i/r tesla
48. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is B. It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at centre of the coil will be:
(a) NB (b) n2B (c) 2nB (d) 2n2B
49. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a vibration magnetometer is 2 s. The magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and three parts are then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be:
(a) 2 s (b) 2/3 s (c) 2 Ö3 s (d) 2 Ö3 s
50. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have:
(a) High retentivity and high coereivity (b) low retentivity and low coercivity
(c) High retentivity and low coercivity (d) low retentivity and high coercivity
51. In LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components. L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage across the LC combination will be:
(a) 50 V (b) 50 Ö2 V (c) 100 V (d) 0 V (zero)
52. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular lop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 mT. What will be its value at the centre of the loop?
(a) 250 mT (b) 150 mT (c) 125 mT (d) 75 mT
53. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents I1 and I2 in the same direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force between them is:
(a) -2F (b) F/3 (c) -2F/3 (d) –F/3
54. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately:
(a) 540 nm (b) 400 nm (c) 310 nm (d) 220 nm
55. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3*104 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be:
(Taken the mass of the charge = 9.9*10-15kg and g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 3.3*10-18 C (b) 3.2*10-18 C (c) 1.6*10-18 C (d) 4.8*10-18 C
56. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2:1. The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be:
(a) 21/3:1 (b) 1: 31/2 (c) 31/2:1 (d) 1:21/3
57. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron (21H) and helium nucleus (42He) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the energy released is:
(a) 13.9 MeV (b) 26.9 MeV (c) 23.6 MeV (d) 19.2 MeV
58. An particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 1800 by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of the closest approach is of the order of:
(a) 1 Ao (b) 10-10 cm (c) 10-12 cm (d) 10-15 cm
59. When NPN transistor is used as an amplifier:
(a) Electrons move from base to collector (b) holes move from emitter to base
(c) Electrons move from collector to base (d) holes move from base to emitter
60. For a transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration for load impedance of 1 kW (hfe = 50 and hoe = 25 mA/V), the current gain is:
(a) -5.2 (b) -15.7 (c) -24.8 (d) -48.78
61. A coil having n tuns and resistance RW is connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4RW. This combination is moved in time t seconds from a magnetic field W1 Weber to W2 Weber. The induced current in the circuit is:
(a) W2-W1/5Rnt (b) –n (W2-W1)/5Rt
(c) – (W2-W1)/Rnt (d) –n (W2-W1)/RT
62. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form of semicircle of radius rotates about the diameter of the circle with angular frequency w. If the total resistance of the circuit is R, the mean power generated per period of rotation is:
(a) Bpr2w/2R (b) (Bpr2w) 2/8R (c) (Bprw)2/2R (d) (Bprw2)/8R
63. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to:
(a) 4L (b) 2L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
64. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 radians per second. If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2*10-4 T, then the emf developed between the two ends of the conductor is:
(a) 5 mV (b) 50 mV (c) 5mV (d) 50 mV
65. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from metal Vs the frequency, of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope:
(a) Depends on the nature of the metal used
(b) Depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(d) Is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
66. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K, the resistance of:
(a) Each of them increases (b) each of them decreases
(c) Copper decreases and germanium increases (d) copper increases and germanium decreases
67. The manifestation of band structure in solids is due to:
(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Bohr’s correspondence principle (d) Boltzmann’s law
68. When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then:
(a) The depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increases
(b) The depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(c) Both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height are increased
69. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron in 4f orbital?
(a) N = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + ½ (b) n = 4, l = 4, m = – 4, s = – ½
(c) N = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = + ½ (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = + ½
70. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal quantum numbers. l = 1 and 2 are, respectively:
(a) 12 and 4 (b) 12 and 5 (c) 16 and 4 (d) 16 and 5
71. Which of the following ions has the highest value of ionic radius?
(a) Li+ (b) B3+ (c) O2- (d) F-
72. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O3 and SO2 the correct order of acid strength is:
(a) SO2<P2O3<SiO2<AlO3 (b) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
(c) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3 (d) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2
73. The bond order in NO is 2.5 while that in NO+ is 3. Which of the following statements is true for these two species?
(a) Bond length in NO+ is greater than in NO
(b) Bond length in NO is greater than in NO+
(c) Bond length in NO+ is equal to that in NO
(d) Bond length is unpredictable
74. The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097 * 107 m-1):
(a) 91 nm (b) 192 nm (c) 406 nm (d) 9.1*10-8 nm
75. The correct order of bond angles (smallest first) in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is:
(a) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3 (b) NH3 < H2S < SiH4 < BF3
(c) H2S <NH3 < SiH4 < BF3 (d) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4
76. Which one of the following sets of ions represents the collection of isoelectronic species?
(A) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl-1 ` (b) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
(c) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+ (d) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
(Atomic numbers F = 9, Cl = 17, Na = 11, Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21)
77. The formation of the ocide ion O2- (g) requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below.
O (g) +e– = O–(g); DHo = -142 kjmol-1
O (g)–+e– = O2-(g); DHo = 844 kjmol-1
This is because:
(a) Oxygen is more electronegative (b) oxygen has high electron affinity
(c) O– ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron (d) O– ion has comparatively larger size than
78. The state of hybridization of boron and oxygen atoms in boric acid (H3BO3) is respectively:
(a) Sp2 and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3 (c) sp3 and sp2 (d) sp3 and sp3
79. Which one of the following has the regular tetrahedral structure?
(a) XeF4 (b) SF4 (c) BF-4 (d) [Ni (CN) 4]2- (Atomic numbers B = 5, S = 16, Ni = 28, Xe = 54)
80. of the following outer electronic configurations of atoms. The highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of them?
(a) (n-1) d8ns2 (b) (n-1) d5ns1 (c) (n-1) d3ns2 (d) (n-1) d5ns2
81. As the temperature is raised from 20o C to 40oC, the average kinetic energy of neon atoms changes by a factor of which of the following?
(a) ½ (b) 313/293 (c) Ö313/293 (d) 2
82. The maximum number of 90o angles between bond pair-bond pair of electrons is observed in :
(a) dsp3 hybridization (b) sp3d hybridization (c) dsp2 hybridization (d) sp3d2 hybridization
83. Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?
(a) 0.01 M Na2SO4 (b) 0.01 M KNO3 (c) 0.015 M urea (d) 0.015 M glucose
84. Which among the following factors is the most important in making fluorine the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Electron Affinity (b) Bond dissociation (c) Ionization enthalpy (d) Hydration enthalpy
85. In van der Waals equation of state of the gas law, the constant ‘b’ is a measure of:
(a) Volume occupied by the molecules (b) Intermolecular repulsions
(c) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume (d) Intermolecular attraction
86. The conjugate base of H2PO-4 is:
(a) PO34– (b) P2O5 (c) H3PO4 (d) HPO24–
87. 6.02*1020 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is:
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.01 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.1 M
(Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 *1023 mol-1)
88. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous solution of phosphorous acid (H3PO3), the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution required is:
(a) 10 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 40 mL (d) 60 mL
89. For which of the following parameters the structural isomers C2H5OH and CH3OCH3 would be expected to have the same values?
(Assume ideal behaviour):
(a) Boiling points
(b) Gaseous densities at the same temperature and pressure
(c) Heat of vaporization
(d) Vapour pressure at the same temperature
90. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
(a) Water ——- nitric acid
(b) Water ——- hydrochloric acid
(c) Acetone ——— chloroform
(d) Benzene ———- methanol
91. Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2>KCl>CH3COOH>sucrose
(b) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same freezing point depression
(c) Raoult’s law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is proportional to its mole fraction
(d) The osmotic pressure (p) of a solution is given by the equation p = MRT. Where M is the molarity of the solution
92. What type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?
Na+, Cl–, Na+, Cl–, Na+, Cl–
Cl– Ò Cl– Na+ Ò Na+
Na+ Cl– Ò Cl–, Na+ Cl–
Cl– Na+ Cl– Na+ Ò Na+
(a) Interstitial defect
(b) Frenkel and Schottky defects
(c) Frenkel defect
(d) Schottky defect
93. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1*10-3m3 to 1*10-2 m3 at 300K against a constant pressure of 1*105 Nm-2. The work done is:
(a) 270 kJ (b) 900 kJ (c) -900J (d) -900kJ
94. In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to:
(a) Create potential difference between the two electrodes
(b) Remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces
(c) Generate heat
(d) Produce high purity water
95. In a first order reaction, the concentration of the reactant decreases from 0.8 M to 0.4 M in 15 minutes. The time taken for the concentration change from 0.1 M to 0.025 M is:
(a) 7.5 min (b) 15 min (c) 30 min (d) 60 min
96. What is the equilibrium expression for the reaction?
P4(s) + 5O2 (g) = P4O10(s)?
(a) Kc = [P4O10]/ [P4][O2]5 (b) Kc = [P4O10]/5[P4][O2]
(c) Kc = [O2]5 (d) Kc = 1/ [O2]5
97. for the reaction,
CO (g) + Cl2 (g) = COCl2 (g), the Kp/Kc is equal to
(a) 1/RT (b) RT (c) ÖRT (d) 1.0
98. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g)
At temperature 4*10-4. The value of Kc for the reaction:
(a) 2.5*102 (b) 50 (c) 4*10-4 (d) 0.02
99. The rate equation for the reaction 2A+B ®C is found to be:
Rate = k [A] [B].
The correct statement in relation to this reaction is that be:
(a) t1/2 is a constant
(b) Value of k is independent of the initial concentrations of A and B
(c) Unit of k must be s-1
(d) Rate of formation of C is twice the rate of disappearance of A
100. In a cell that utilises the reaction
Zn (s) + 2H+ (aq) ® Zn2+ (aq) +H2 (g)
Addition of H2SO4 to cathode compartment will:
(a) Increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the right
(b) Increase the E and shift the equilibrium to the left
(c) Lower the E and shift the equilibrium to the right
(d) Lower the E and shift equilibrium to the left
101. Which one of the following statements regarding helium is incorrect?
(a) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors
(b) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments at low temperatures
(c) It used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because it is lighter and non-inflammable
(d) It is used t produce and sustains powerful superconducting magnets
102. Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
(a) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
(b) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
(c) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action
(d) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperatures (T~1000 K).
103. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with an excess of water gives:
(a) One mole of nitric acid
(b) Two moles of nitric acid
(c) One mole of ammonia
(d) Two moles of ammonia
104. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth-floatation method?
(a) Galena (b) Cassiterite (c) Malachite (d) Magnetite
105. Consider the following Eo values:
EoSn2+/Sn = – 0.14 V
Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction
Sn (s) + 2Fe3+ (aq) ® 2/fe2+ (aq) + Sn2+ (aq)
(a) 0.91 V (b) 1.40 V (c) 0.63 V (d) 1.68 V
106. The molar solubility (in mol L-1) of a sparingly soluble salt MX4 is‘s’. The corresponding solubility product is Ksp. S is given in terms of Ksp by the relation:
(a) s = (Ksp/256)1/5 (b) s = (Ksp/128)1/4 (c) s = (128 Ksp)1/4 (d) s = (256 Ksp)1/5
107. The standard e.m.f. of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25o C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F = 96500 C mol-1, R = 8.34 JK-1 mol-1):
(A) 1.0*1030 (b) 1.0*101 (c) 1.0*1010 (d) 1.0*105
108. The enthalpies of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are -393.5 and -283 kJ mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of formation of carbon monoxide per mole is:
(a) 676.5 kJ (b) -110.5 kJ (c) 110.5 kJ (d) -676.5 kJ
109. The limiting molar conductivities o for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The for NaBr is:
(a) 302 S cm2 mol-1 (b) 128 S cm2 mol-1 (c) 176 S cm2 mol-1 (d) 278 S cm2 mol-1
110. Among the properties (A) reducing (B) oxidising (C) complexing, the set of properties shown by CN- ion towards metal species is:
(a) C, A (b) B, C (c) A, B (d) A, B, C
111. The co-ordination number of a central metal atom in a complex is determined by:
(a) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
(b) The number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion
(c) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma bonds
(d) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by sigma and pi-bonds both
112. Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex?
(a) [Mn (CN) 6]4- (b) [Co (NH3)6]3+ (c) [Ni (NH3)6]2+ (d) [Fe (CN) 6]4-
(Atomic numbers Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
113. Co-ordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Cyanocobalamin is vitamin B12 and contains cobalt
(b) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain calcium
(c) Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme an enzyme and contains zinc
(d) Hemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron
114. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the lanthanoids. Which of the following statements about cerium is incorrect?
(a) The + 3 oxidation state of cerium is more stable than the + 4 oxidation state
(b) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidizing agent
(c) The common oxidation states of cerium are + 3 and + 4
(d) The + 4 oxidation state of cerium is not known in solutions
115. Beryllium and aluminium exhibit many properties which are similar. But, the two elements differ in:
(a) Forming covalent halides
(b) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
(c) Exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides
(d) Forming polymeric hydrides
116. Aluminium chloride exists as dimmer, Al2Cl6 in slid state as well as in solution f non-polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water. It gives:
(a) [Al (OH) 6]3- + 3HCL (b) Al3+ + 3Cl– (c) Al2O3 + 6HCL (d) [Al (H2O) 6]3+ + 3Cl–
117. The soldiers of Napolean army while at Alps during freezing winter suffered a serious problem as regards to the tin buttons of their uniforms. White metallic tin buttons got converted to grey power. This transformation is related to:
(a) A change in the partial pressure of oxygen in the air
(b) A change in the crystalline structure of tin
(c) An interaction with water vapour contained in the humid air
(d) An interaction with nitrogen of the air at very low temperatures
118. The Eo M3+/M2+ values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41, + 1.57, + 0.77 and + 1.97 V respectively. For which one of these metals the change in oxidation state from + 2 to + 3 is easiest?
(A) Mn (b) Fe (c) Co (d) Cr
119. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then NaS2O3 solution is added to it. Which of the statements is incorrect for this reaction?
(a) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (b) Cu2I2 is formed
(c) Evolved I2 is reduced (d) CuI2 is formed
120. Which one of the following has the minimum boiling point?
(a) 1-butene (b) n-butane (c) Isobutene (d) 1-butyne
121. Which one of the following does not have sp2 hybridised carbon?
(a) Acetonitrile (b) Acetone (c) Acetamide (d) Acetic acid
122. Which of the following will have a meso-isomer also?
(a) 2, 3 dichloropentane (b) 2-hydroxypropanoic acid (c) 2, 3-dichlorobutane (d) 2-3chlorobutane
123. The ammonia evolved from the treatment of 0.30 g of an organic compound for the estimation of nitrogen was passed in 100 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid. The excess of acid required 20 mL of 0.5 M sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralization. The organic compound is:
(a) Urea (b) Thiourea (c) Benzamide (d) Acetamide
124. The compound formed in the positive test for nitrogen with the Lassaigne solution of an organic compound is:
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS (b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (c) Na3[fe(CN)6] (d) Fe(CN)3
125. The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the initial mass of the isotope was 200g, the mass remaining after 24 hours undecayed is:
(a) 4.167 g (b) 1.042 g (c) 2.084 g (d) 3.125 g
126. Consider the following nuclear reactions:
238 92 M ® xyN + 2 42He ; xyN ® ABL + 2b+
The number of neutrons in the element L is:
(a) 146 (b) 142 (c) 140 (d) 144
127. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in B.M.) among the following is:
(a) [Fe (CN)6]4- > [CoCl4]2- > [MnCl4]2- (b) [MnCl4]2- > [CoCl4]2- > [Fe (CN)6]4-
(c) [MnCl4]2- > [Fe (CN)6]4- > [CoCl4]2- (d) [Fe (CN)6]4- > [MnCl4]2- > [CoCl4]2-
128. Which one of the following has largest number of isomers?
(a) [Co (en) 2 Cl2] + (b) [Ru (NH3)4 Cl2] + (c) [Co (NH3)5 Cl] 2+ (d) [Ir (PR3)2 H (CO)] 2+
129. Consider the acidity of the carboxylic acids:
Which of the following order is correct?
(a) i > ii > iii > iv
(b) ii > iv > iii > i
(c)ii > iv > i > iii
(d)ii > iii > iv > i
130. Which base is present is RNA but not in DNA?
(a) Guanine (b) Cytosine (c) Uracil (d) Thymine
131. The compound formed on heating chlorobenzene with chloral in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid is:
(a) Hexachloroethane (b) Gammexene (c) DDT (d) Freon
132. On mixing ethyl acetate with aqueous sodium chloride, the composition of the resultant solution is:
(a) CH3COCl2H5 + NaCl (b) CH3Cl + C2H5COONa
(c) CH3COONa + C2H5OH (d) CH3COCl + C2H5OH + NaOH
133. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3Mgl followed by treatment with a saturated solution of NH4Cl gives:
(a) 2-methyl-2-propanol (b) Acetone (c) Acetyl iodide (d) Acetamide
134. Which one of the following is reduced with zinc and hydrochloric acid to give the corresponding hydrocarbon?
(a) Acetamide (b) Butan-2-one (c) Ethyl acetate (d) Acetic acid
135. Which one of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the corresponding alcohol and acid?
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Butanal (c) Phenol (d) Benzaldehyde
136. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?
(a) 3-chloro-2-methyl pentane (b) 1-chloropentane
(c) 2-chloropentane (d) 1-chloro-2-methyl pentane
137. Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound belongs to which of the following categories?
(a) An antibiotic (b) A co-enzyme (c) A hormone (d) An enzyme
138. The smog is essentially caused by the presence of:
(a) O3 and N2 (b) O2 and O3
(c) O2 and O3 (d) oxides of sulphur and nitrogen
139. A particle of charge – 16*10-18 coulomb moving with velocity 10 ms-1 along the x-axis enters a region where a magnetic field of induction B is along the y-axis and an electric field of magnitude 104 V/m is along the negative z-axis. If the charged particle continues moving along the x-axis, the magnitude of B is:
(a) 10-3 Wb/m2 (b) 103 Wb/m2 (c) 105 Wb/m2 (d) 1016 Wb/m2
140. A thin rectangular magnet suspended freely has a period of oscillation equal to T. Now it is broken into two equal halves (each having half of the original length) and one piece is made to oscillate freely in the same field. If its period of oscillation is T’, the ratio T’/T is:
(a) 2 (b) ¼ (c) ½ Ö2 (d) ½
141. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 600. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be:
(a) 2 W (b) Ö3 W (c) W (d) (Ö3/2) W
142. The magnetic line of force inside a bar magnet:
(a) Are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet
(b) Are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet
(c) Do not axis
(d) Depend upon the area of cross-selection of the bar magnet
143. Curie temperature is the temperature above which:
(a) A paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
(b) A ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
(c) A paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
(d) A ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
144. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the spring and stationary. If the lift moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s2, the reading of the spring balance will be:
(a) 49 N (b) 24 N (c) 74 N (d) 15 N
145. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of:
(a) Each of these increases
(b) Each of these decreases
(c) Copper strip increase and that of germanium decreases
(d) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
146. Consider telecommunication through optical fibres. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Optical fibres may have homogeneous core with a suitable cladding
(b) Optical fibres can be of graded refractive index
(c) Optical fibres are subjected to electromagnetic interference
(d) Optical fibres have extremely low transmission loss
147. The thermo-emf of a thermocouple 25 mV/oC at room temperature. A galvanometer of 40 ohm resistance, capable of detecting current as low as 10-5 A, is connected with the thermocouple. The smallest temperature difference that can be detected by this system is:
(a) 20o C (b) 16o C (c) 12o C (d) 8o C
148. The negative Zn pole of Daniell cell, sending a constant current through a circuit, decreases in mass by 0.13 g in 30 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of Zn and Cu are 32.5 and 31.5 respectively, the increase in the mass of the positive Cu pole in this time is:
(a) 0.242 g (b) 0.180 g (c) 0.141 g (d) 0.126 g
149. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y of radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. Then the relation between the moment of inertia lx and ly is:
(a) Ly = 32lx (b) ly = lx (c) ly = 64lx (d) ly = 16lx
150. The time period of a satellite of earth is 5 hours. If the separation between the earth and the satellite is increased to 4 times the previous value, the new time period will become:
(a) 20 hour (b) 10 hour (c) 80 hour (d) 40 hour
More Govt Jobs given below
Staff Selection Commission
Combined Graduate Level Exam
Subject – General English
Directions (1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word.
A two party (1) is must for a democratic country like (2) to achieve national objectives (3) as removal (4) unemployment,
MODEL PRACTICE SET
Subject- General English
Combined Graduate level Examination SSC 2011
Directions (1-10): A passage is given below in which blanks have been numbered. Four alternative choices are given below against each number. In the context of the whole passage, select the best word in each case to fit each of the blanks to complete the passage correctly and meaningfully.
During the World War I penicillin was (1) on six patients.
BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICER (BANK PO)
1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?
(a) US (b) Britain
(c) France (d) Denmark
(e) None of these
2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.
Bank Probationary Officer ( Bank PO)
1. Name the Karnataka minister who resigned in the wake of the Lokayukta police filing a first information report against him on irregularities related to allotment of land through the Karnataka Industrial Area Development Board (KIADB).
(a) Katta Subramanya Naidu (b) N Santosh Hegde
(c) Jagmohan Reddy (d) Roshan Baig
(e) None of these
NABARD Bank PO
1. Which of the following is rated the poorest region of the world?
(a) The Middle East (b) Asia
(c) Sub-Saharan Africa (d) Latin America
(e) None of these
2. Which of the following terms is not used in the world of economics/finance?
(a) Sinking Fund (b) Third World
(c) Open Door Policy (d) Devaluation
(e) Privilege Motion