SSC FCI Assistant Exam Question Paper

Staff Selection Commission Examination for Assistant in FCI 2012

SSC Assistant for FCI Question Paper

PART – (a)


1. Student : BOOK : : Postman 😕

(A) Delivery                            (B) Bicycle

(C) Uniform                            (D) Mail

2. Illiteracy : Education : : Drought : ?

(A) Well                                  (B) Rain

(C) Dam                                  (D) River

3. Carpenter : Furniture : : ?

(A) Book : Author

(B) Magazine : Editor

(C) Cook : Soup

(D) Dam : Engineer

4. LOM : NMK :: PKI : ?

(A) RIH                                  (B) SHG

(B) RIG                                   (C) RHG

5. JTIS : HRGQ : : FPEO : ?

(A) DNCM                             (B) DCNQ

(C) CNDM                              (E) CNDQ

6. BAD : CBE : : ? : IVSU

(A) GOOD                              (B) HSPR

(C) HALT                               (D) HURT

7. 5 : 30 : : 8 : ?

(A) 14                                      (B) 50

(C) 69                                      (D) 80

8. 12 : 30 : : 20 : ?

(A) 48                                      (B) 32

(C) 35                                      (D) 42

9. 3 : 28 : : 5 : ?

(A) 179                                    (B) 126

(C) 124                                    (D) 125

10. (A) Cement                       (B) Glue

(C) Gum                            (D) Lock

11. (A) Biography                   (B) Photography

(C) Lithography                (D) Xerography

12. (A) Petrol – Car                (B) Coal – Engine

(C) Smoke – Fire               (D) Oil – Lamp

13. (A) 23                                (B) 25

(C) 19                                (D) 17

14. (A) 6121                            (B) 7364

(c) 1036                             (D) 2710

15. (A) 21 – 98                        (B) 45 – 210

(C) 7 – 29                          (D) 27 – 126

16. (A) EBD                           (B) IFH

(C) QNO                           (D) YVX

17. (A) BQCR                        (B) DSET

(C) FUGV                         (D) HWIY

18. (A) AEIU                          (B) BCDF

(C) AOIU                         (D) OIAE

19. 1. Child                             2. Profession

3. Marriage                        4. Infant

5. Education

(A) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4,                 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

(C) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3                  (D) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

20. 1. Plastering                      2. Painting

3. Foundation                    4. Walls

5. Ceiling

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5                  (B) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5

(B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2                  (C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

21. If the following words are arranged according to English Dictionary, which word will be on third place ?

(A) KNOW                       (B) KNACK

(C) KNIT                          (D) KNOB

22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

_ bc c _ a abc _ ba ab _

(A) acbc                            (B) abac

(C) abcc                             (D) acac

23. ACE, BDF, CEG, ?

(A) CED                           (B) DFH

(C) DEM                           (D) HED


(A) SHTG                         (B) GXHW

(C) GTHS                         (D) STHO

25. 33, 48, 65, 84, ?, ?

(A) 105, 128                      (B) 99, 110

(C) 101, 118                      (D) 105, 126

26. 2, 10, 26, 50, ?

(A) 74                                (B) 50

(C) 78                                (D) 82

27. Find the wrong number in the given number series :

2, 10, 30, 68, 120, 222

(A) 68                                (B) 120

(C) 30                                (D) 222

28. Savitha introduced a boy as the son of the only daughter of the father of her maternal uncle. How is boy related to Savitha?

(A) Brother                       (B) Son

(C) Nephew                      (D) Son-in-law

29. A father is three times as old as his son. Eight years ago, the father was five times as old as his son. What is the present age of the son?

(A) 12 years                      (B) 14 years

(C) 16 years                       (D) 20 years

30. From following alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

(A) PART                         (B) TREAT

(C) MATURE                   (D) TAME

31. From the following alternatives select the word can be formed using the letters of the given word:


(A) EXPIRE                     (B) PERCIEVE

(C) EMPIRE                     (D) EXPENSE

32. If E = 5 and TEA = 26 then TEACHER = ?

(A) 75                                (B) 59

(C) 60                                (D) 57

33. In certain code COMPUTER is written as OCPMKTURE. In that code which alternative will be written as OHKCYE ?

(A) HCOKEY                  (B) HYKOCE

(C) HOCKEY                   (D) HOYECK

34. X stands for +, Z stands for ÷ , Y stands for -, and P stands for x, then what is the value of 10 P 2 X 5 Y 5 ?

(A) 10                                (B) 15

(C) 20                                (D) 25

35. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 3 ÷ 5 = 5, 4 ÷ 7 = 8, 8 ÷ 7 = 6 then,

What should 9 ÷ 6 be?

(A) 4                                  (B) 9

(C) 5                                  (D) 6

36. Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace * signs and to balance the given equation :

28* 4 ­* 9 * 16

(A) ÷ + =                           (B) + ÷ =

(C) – x +                            (D) _ = x

37. 8   15   22

29  ?    43

50  57  64

(A) 34                                (B) 70

(C) 60                                (D) 65

38.  7      9     22

29     ?     43

2       5       ?

112  135  900

(A) 6                                  (B) 70

(C) 60                                (D) 65

39. A man starts form his house and walked straight for 10 metres towards North and turned left and walked 25 metres. He then turned right and walked 5 metres and again turned right and walked 25 metres.

Which direction is he facing now ?

(A) North                          (B) East

(C) South                          (D) West

40. A and B start walking form the same point. A goes North and covers 3 km, then turns right and covers 4 kms. B goes west and covers 5 kms, then turns right and covers 3 kms, How far apart are they fro9m each other ?

(A) 10 km                          (B) 9 km

(C) 8 km                            (D) 5 km

41. Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of C and B is on the right of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E occupies a corner position then who is sitting in the centre ?

(A) A                                 (B) B

(C) C                                 (D) D

42. If Ram’s house is located to the South of Krishna’s house and Govinda’s house is to the East of Krishna’s house, in what direction is Ram’s house situated with respect to Govinda’s house ?

(A) North-East                  (B) North-West

(C) South-East                  (D) South-West

43. Statements :  1. All children are students.

2. All students are players.

Conclusions : 1. All cricketers are students.

2. All children are players.

(A) Only conclusion I follows.

(B) Only conclusion II follows.

(C) Both conclusions I and II follow.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

44. Statements :   1. No teacher comes to the school on a bicycle.

2. Anand comes to the school on a bicycle.

Conclusions : I.Anand is not a teacher.

II. Anand is a student.

(A)  Conclusion I alone can be drawn.

(B)   Conclusion II alone can be drawn.

(C)   Both conclusions can be drawn.

(D)  Both Conclusions can not be drawn.

45. Which single letter when suffixed to the following words will form now words ?


(A)  D

(B)   E

(C)   T

(D)  None or more than one letter

46. In a row of boys, Manish is 9th form the left and Suresh is 9th from the right. When they interchange their positions, Suresh becomes 18th from the right. What will be the Manish’s new position from the left ?

(A) 9th

(B) 16th

(C) 18th

(D) 20th

47. How many 5’s are there in the following number series which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 8.

4 5 8 3 2 7 3 5 1 7 8 9 3 5 8 3 1 3 5 2

(A) 4

(B) 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

48. A day-after-tomorrow will be be X-Mas day. What will be the day on New-year-day if to day is Monday ?

(A) Monday

(B) Thursday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Tuesday

49. The height of three towers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If a spider takes 15 minutes to climb the smallest tower, how much time will it take to climb the highest one.

(A) 15 minutes

(B) 18 minutes

(C) 21 minutes

(D) 54 minutes

50. In an examination Raviscores 8 marks less than 80% of full marks and Amit gets 5 marks more than 70% of full marks.Ravigets 2 marks more than Amit. How many marks does Ravi get ?

(A) 220

(B) 120

(C) 112

(D) 96

PART – (b)


51. The value of a commodity expressed in terms of money is known as

(A) Price                            (B) Utility

(D) Value                          (E) Wealth

52. The planning Commission of India was established in the year

(A) 1947                            (B) 1949

(C) 1950                            (D) 1952

53. Green Revolution was started in

(A) 1960                            (B) 1970

(C) 1980                            (D) 1990

54. The term of the Finance Commission is

(A) Ten years

(B) Five years

(C) Six years

(D) Three years

55. Reserve Bank ofIndiawas Nationalised in

(A) 1948                            (B) 1947

(C) 1949                            (D) 1950

56. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly ?

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(D) Vallabh Bhai Patel

57. Which one of the following methods is used to ascertain the public opinion on important legislation ?

(A) Initiative

(B) Recall

(C) Referendum

(D) None of the above

58. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by

(A) 24th Amendment

(B) 39th Amendment

(C) 42nd Amendment

(D) 44th Amendment

59. The final authority to interpret out Constitution is the

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(C) Prime Minister

(D) Supreme Court

60. Compared with Society, the scope of State activity is

(A) Wider

(B) Narrow

(C) Just equal

(D) No comparison between the two

61. Seleucus Nicator was defeated by

(A) Asoke

(B) Chandragupta Maurya

(C) Bindu Sara

(D) Brihadratha

62. The striking feature of the Indus Valley Civilization was

(A) Urban Civilization

(B) Agrarian Civilization

(C) Mesolithic Civilization

(D) Paleolithic Civilization

63. The Governor-General who abolished the practice of Sati was

(A) Dalhousie

(B) Ripon

(C) William Bentinck

(D) Curzon

64. The famous Bhakti Saint who belonged to the royal family of Mewar was

(A) Chaitanya

(B) Andal

(C) Meerabai

(D) Ramabai

65. After Alexander’s death the Eastern part of his empire came under

(A) Seleucus Nicator

(B) Menander

(C) Rudradaman

(D) Kanishka

66. The Thar Express goes to



(C) Pakistan


67. The product used for manufacturing of Industrial alcohol is

(A) Khandasari

(B) Bagasse

(C) Molasses

(D) Paper-pulp

68. Guwahati is situated on the bank of the river

(A) Teesta


(C) Hooghly

(D) Sone

69.Kanchenjungais situated in



(C) WestBengal

(D) Himachal Pradesh

70. With which set of following countries has Arunachal Pradesh common border ?





71. The green colour of the leaves is due to the presence of

(A) Proteins

(B) Lipids

(C) Chlorophyll

(D) Carbohydrates

72. The edible part of an onion is

(A) Modified root

(B) Aerial flower

(C) Aerial stem

(D) Fleshy leaves

73. To which group of blood and universal recipient belongs ?

(A) A group

(B) B group

(C) O group

(D) AB group

74. The normal body temperature of human beings is

(A) 96.4 oF

(B) 97.4 oF

(C) 98.4 oF

(D) 99.4 oF

75. Columba livia is the scientific name of

(A) Pigeon

(B) Snake

(C) Rabbit

(D) Shark

76. Bones are pneumatic in

(A) Fishes

(B) Amphibians

(C) Reptiles

(D) Birds

77. Name the process of production of energy in the Sun

(A) Nuclear fission

(B) Radioactivity

(C) Nuclear fusion

(D) Ionization

78. A spherical ball made of steel when dropped in mercury container will

(A) sink in mercury

(B) will be on the surface of mercury

(C) will be partly immersed in mercury

(D) will dissolve in mercury

79. The sounds having a frequency of 20 Hertz to 20,000 Hertz are known as

(A) Audible sounds

(B) Ultrasonics

(C) Infrasonics

(D) Megasonics

80. Eclipses occur due to which optical phenomena ?

(A) Reflection

(B) Refraction

(C) Rectilinear propagation

(D) Diffraction

81. Which of the following produces highest amount of energy upon oxidation ?

(A) Protein

(B) Fat

(C) Glucose

(D) An alkane

82. Pure water is bad conductor of electricity because it is

(A) feebly ionized

(B) not volatile

(C) a very good solvent

(D) a non-polar solvent

83. Where is National Chemical Laboratory (NCL) located /



(C) Pune

(D) Panaji

84. The metals commonly used for electroplating are

(A) Gold, Sodium & Chromium

(B) Chromium, Copper & Chromium

(C) Nickel, Lead & Chromium

(D) Gold, Sodium & Potassium

85. Which of the following in automobile exhaust can cause cancer ?

(A) Oxides of nitrogen

(B) Carbon monoxide

(C) Lead

(D) Polyclinic hydrocarbons

86. Bleaching powder is used in drinking water as a/an

(A) disinfectant

(B) antibiotic

(C) antiseptic

(D) coagulant

87. Gamma rays have greatest similarity with

(A) α-rays                          (B) β-rays

(C) X-rays                         (D) U.V.-rays

88. In the absence of ozone layer, which rays will enter into atmosphere ?

(A) Infrared

(B) Visible

(C) Ultraviolet

(D) X-rays

89. Where are programs and date to be used by the computer available ?

(A) Processing Unit

(B) Output

(C) Storage

(D) Input

90. In HTML, <B> and </B> tags display the enclosed text in

(A) black colour

(B) background

(C) bold

(D) bright

91. Who invented chloroform as anaesthetic ?

(A) James Simpson

(B) Edward Jenner

(C) Alexander Fleming

(D) Christian Barnard

92. The Nobel Prize for Chemistry for the year 2011 has been awarded to

(A) Saul Perlmutter, Brian P. Schmidt & Adam G. Riess

(B) Bruce A. Beutler, Jules A. Hoffmann & Ralph M. Steinman

(C) Christopher A. Sims & Thomas J. Sargent

(D) Dan Schechtman

93. Sebastian Vettel won the Formula 1 India Grand Prix held at Greater Noida on October 30, 2011. This was also his_____ win of the season.

(A) 10th                              (B) 11th

(C) 12th                              (D) 13th

94. Of which of the following States of India is Kuchipudi a dance-drama ?

(A) Orissa

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Kerala

(D) Tamil Nadu

95. With which of the following was Satyajit Ray associated ?

(A) Classical dance

(B) Journalism

(C) Classical music

(D) Direction of films

96. Census date released on July 15, 2011 reflect that 13.48 percent urban population lives in

(A) Uttar Pradesh


(C) Maharashtra

(D) Rajasthan

97. National Social Assistance Programme is aimed at providing

(A) financial support to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(B) old age pension to very poor

(C) insurance for the poor

(D) All of the above

98. As per studies, the Tummalapalle mine in Andhra Pradesh could have Uranium reserve of

(A) 1 lakh tonnes

(B) 1.5 lakh tonnes

(C) 2 lakh tonnes

(D) 2.5 lakh tonnes

99. Which of the following is a famous Assamese festival ?

(A) Maker Sakranti

(B) Yugadi

(C) Onam

(D) Rongali Bihu

100. The least populated State inIndiais

(A) Arunachal Pradesh


(C) Mizoram

(D) Uttarakhand

PART – (c)


101. The value of 1/15+1/35+1/63+1/99+1/143 is

(A) 5/39                             (B) 4/39

(C) 2/39                             (D) 7/39

102. The number 2.525, when written as a fraction and reduced to lowest terms, the sun of the numerator and denominator is

(A) 7                                  (B) 29

(C) 141                              (D) 349

103. If the square root of x is the cube root of y, then the relation between x and y is

(A) x3 = y2                                 (B) x2 = y3

        (C) x = y                            (D) x6 = y5

104. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete in 20 days. If B does the work only half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work ?

(A) 10 days                       (B) 20 days

(C) 11 days                       (D) 15 days

105. A can do a piece of work in 70 days and B is 40% more efficient than A. The number of days taken by B to do the same work is

(A) 40 days                       (B) 60 days

(C) 50 days                       (D) 45 days

106. A right circular cylinder, a hemisphere and a right circular cone stand on the same base and have the same height The ration of their volumes is then

(A) 3 :  6 : 1                       (B) 3 : 4 : 1

(C) 3 : 2 : 1                        (D) 4 : 3 : 1

107. A cylinder has ‘r’ as the radius of the base and ‘h’ as the height. The radius of base of another cylinder, having double the volume but the same height as that of the first cylinder must be equal to

(A) r/

108. Area of the base of a pyramid is 57 sq. cm. and height is 10 cm, then its volume in cm3, is

(A) 570                              (B) 390

(C) 190                              (D) 590

109. The area of a circle inscribed in a square of area 2 m2 is

(A) π/4 m2                                  π/2 m2

        (C) π m2                                      2π m2

110. For a certain article, if discount is 25% the profit is 25%. If the discount is 10% then the profit is

(A) 50%                            (B) 40%

(C) 30%                             (D) 33 1/3%

111. The price that Akbar should mark on a pair of shoes which costs him Rs. 1,200 to gain 12% after allowing a discount of 16% (in rupees) is

(A) 1344                            (B) 1433

(C) 1600                            (D) 1500

112. Some carpenters promised to do a job in 9 days but 5 of them were absent and remaining men did the job in 12 days. The original number of carpenters was

(A) 24                                (B) 20

(C) 16                                (D) 18

113. One third of a certain journey is covered at the rate of 25 km/hour, one-fourth at the rate of 30 km/hour and the rest at 50 km/hour. The average speed for the whole journey is

(A) 35 km/hour

(B) 33 ⅓ km/hout

(C) 30 km/hour

(D) 37 ½ km/hour

114. The average of two numbers is 62. If 2 is added to the smallest number, the ratio between the numbers becomes 1 : 2 The difference of the numbers is

(A) 62                                (B) 40

(C) 84                                (D) 24

115. The cost price of 25 articles is equal to the selling price of 20 of them. The gain or loss percent is given by

(A) 20% loss                     (B) 25% gain

(C) 60% loss                      (D) 75% gain

116. A shopkeeper makes a profit of 20% even after giving a discount of 10% on the marked price of an article. If marked price is Rs. 500/- then the cost price of the article is

(A) Rs. 350                       (B) Rs. 375

(C) Rs. 425                        (D) Rs. 475

117. If 40% of (A+B) = 60% of (A – B) then 2A – 3B/A+B is

(A) 7/6                               (B) 6/7

(C) 5/6                               (D) 6/5

118. A number is first increased by 10% and then it is further increased by 20%. The original number is increased altogether by

(A) 30%                            (B) 15%

(C) 32%                             (D) 36%

119. If a train runs at 40 km/hour, it reaches its destination late by 11 minutes. But if it runs at 50 km/hour, it is late by 5 minutes only. The correct time (in minutes) for the train to complete the journey is

(A) 13                                (B) 15

(C) 19                                (D) 21

120. A tree increase annually by 1/8th of its height. By how much will it increase after 2 years, if it stands today 64 cm height ?

(A) 72 cm                          (B) 74 cm

(C) 75 cm                          (D) 81 cm

121. If 2x + 3 = 32, then the value of 3x + 1 is equal to

(A) 27                                (B) 81

(C) 72                                (D) 9

122. If x + 1/x = 2, x ≠ o then value of x2 + 1/x3 is equal to

(A) 1                                  (B) 2

(C) 3                                  (D) 4

123. If a/b + b/a 1, a ≠ o, b ≠ o the value of a3 + b3 is

(A) 0                                  (B) 1

(C) – 1                               (D) 2

124. If a2 + b2 + c2 + 3 = 2(a + b + c) then the value of (a + b + c) is

(A) 2                                  (B) 3

(C) 4                                  (D) 5

125. The ortho centre of a right angled triangle lies

(A) outside the triangle

(B) at the right angular vertex

(C) on its hypotenuse

(D) within the triangle

126. The angles of a triangle are (x + 5)0, (2x – 3)0 and (3x + 4)0. The value of x is

(A) 30                                (B) 31

(C) 29                                (D) 28

127. AD is the median of a triangle ABC and O is the centroid such that AO = 10 cm. The length of OD in cm is

(A) 4                                  (B) 5

(C) 6                                  (D) 8

128. If tan (2Ө + 450) = cot 3Ө where (2Ө + 450) and3Ө are acute angles, then the value of Ө is

(A) 50                                           (B) 90

        (C) 120                                         (D) 150

129. If sec2 Ө + tan2 Ө = 7/12, then sec4 Ө – tan4 Ө =

(A) 7/12                             (B) ½

(C) 5/12                             (D) 1

130. The ration of area allotted for residential and road purpose is

(A) 1 : 4                             (B) 4 : 1

(C) 3 : 8                             (D) 8 : 3

131. The percentage of the total area allotted for water body and green zone together is

(A) 35%                            (B) 30%

(C) 45%                             (D) 40%

132.Landallotted for green zone is greater than that for commercial purpose by

(A) 3/2 acres                      (B) 2/3 acres

(C) 4/3 acres                      (D) ¾ acres

133. The year in which the gross profit is double the net profit

(A) 1997                            (B) 1995

(C) 1996                            (D) 1994

134. The percentage of net profit of 1995 as compared to the gross profit in that year is

(A) 25.5%                         (B) 35.5%

(C) 37.5%                          (D) 42.5%

135. The difference of average gross profit and average net profit calculated for four years is

(A) Rs. 18.75 lakhs           (B) 19.75 lakhs

(C) Rs. 20.5 lakhs             (D) 22.5 lakhs

136. The ratio of gross profit to net profit in a year was greatest in the year

(A) 1994                            (B) 1995

(C) 1996                            (D) 1997

137. For the entire four years as shown, the ration of total gross profit to total net profit is

(A) 13 : 4                           (B) 11 : 6

(C) 11 : 5                           (D) 9 : 4

PART – (d)


138. Neither of them / are / good. /

(A)                                     (B)       (C)

No error.


139. Due to me being a new comer /


was unable / to get a good house. /

(B)                                                                      (C)

No error.


140. In the garden /


Were the more beautiful flowers /


And silver bells. / No error.

(C)                                                                      (D)

141. The poet / describes about /

(A)                (B)

The spring season. / No error.

(D)                                                                     (D)

142. The news was ________ good to be true.

(A) very

(B) too

(C) so

(D) as

143. How much longer __________ this book ?

(A) you are needing

(B) will you be needing

(C) will you have needed

(D) have you needed

144. _______ you hear the President’s speech ?

(A) Have

(B) Has

(C) Had

(E) Did

145. I ________ to the movies with some friends last night.

(A) have gone

(B) went

(C) am gone

(D) am going

146. She has only _________ friends.

(A) fewer

(B) less

(C) more

(D) a few

147. A pair of shoes have been purchased  by me.

(A) has been

(B) has being

(C) would been

(D) no improvement

148. When I shall go to Agra, I shall visit the Taj Mahal.

(A) have gone

(B) shall travel

(C) go

(D) no improvement

149. You must apologise with him for this

(A) to

(B) of

(C) for

(D) no improvement

150. Since he worked hard he failed to secure good grades.

(A) As

(B) When

(C) Though

(D) No improvement

151. The minister agree will answer question on television.

(A) to answer

(B) for answering

(C) with answering

(D) no improvement

152. A person who loves wealth and spends as little money as possible.

(A) curmudgeon

(B) Money-grabber

(C) Scrimp

(D) Miser

153. State of anxiety or dismay causing mental confusion.

(A) Constriction

(B) Consternation

(C) Concentration

(D) Contraction

154. A person who is fluent in two languages.

(A) Versatile

(B) Expert

(C) Bilingual

(D) Knowledgeable

155. One who eats human flesh.

(A) Man eater

(B) Cannibal

(C) Beast

(D) Savage

156. The quality of being politely firm and demanding.

(A) assertive

(B) bossy

(C) aggressive

(D) lordy

157. (A) independance

(B) independence

(C) independens

(D) indepandance

158. (A) hypocrisy                  (B) hypocresy

(C) hipocrisy                     (D) hipocrecy

159. (A) aeroplane                  (B) airoplane

(C) aeroplain                     (D) airoplain

160. (A) loanly                        (B) lonly

(C) lonelie                         (D) lonely

161. (A) cerimony                   (B) ceremoney

(C) ceremony                    (D) cerimoney

162. (A) freedom                    (B) patriotism

(C) liberation                     (D) revolution

163. (A) threatened                 (B) inspired

(C) attacked                      (D) impressed

164. (A) diffused                    (B) gauged

(C) established                  (D) determined

165. (A) trivial                        (B) magnificent

(C) serious                         (D) auspicious

166. (A) excluded                   (B) elicited

(C) prevented                    (D) concealed

167. (A) transfer                     (B) seizure

(C) grabbing                      (D) retainment

168. (A) tactics                       (B) fantasy

(C) inevitability                 (D) occurrence

169. (A) violence                    (B) taboos

(C) vengeance                   (D) anarchy

170. (A) imagine                     (B) pretend

(C) realise                          (D) anxious

171. (A) power                        (B) bondage

(C) exile                            (D) suspense

SSC FCI Assistant Exam Question Paper
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